Ahmad Rohimi dot Com

EXERCISE 14
I 1. The pastries in that shop are very expensive but quite deliciously.
C 2. You can find some change to buy a paper in the drawer, on top of the dresser, or in the jar.
C 3. The living room was decorated with expensive painting and elegance lamps.
C 4. He knew that the financial problems were serious, that the situation was not going to improve, and that he needed to get a job.
I 5. All day long during the trip to the mountains, they were skiing, sledding, or played in the snow.
C 6. The car needs new tires but not a new enginee.
C 7. He stops working when he gets too tired to continue or when he has finished.
I 8. To get to the office, you should go trough this door, turn to the left, and continuation down the hall.
C 9. For dessert we could serve lemon pie, fruit tarts, chocolate cake, or butter cookies.
I 10. The sick child needs some medicine, some juice, and to rest.
EXERCISE 15
I 1. He either lied or telling an unbelievable story.
C 2. The music at the concert was neither well played nor well liked.
I 3. He regularly studies both in the morning or in the evening.
C 4. The play that we saw last night was not only rather delightful but also quite meaningful.
I 5. He married her neither for her ability to cook nor her ability to clean house.
I 6. The discussion was both exciting and interest.
C 7. He withdrew all the money not only from the cheking account but also from the savings account.
I 8. Neither the teacher or the students are ready to leave the classroom.
I 9. You can meet with me either in the next few minutes or at 4:00.
I 10. John is an adventurous person who enjoys not only sky diving but also goes parasailing.
EXERCISE (Skills 14 – 15)
C 1. The advertisements appeared in the newspaper and on the radio.
I 2. She is trained as both an accountant and in nursing.
I 3. We can take either my car or yours to the party.
C 4. The coffee is too hot, too bitter, and too strength.
I 5. He not only passed the test but also receiving the highest score in the class.
I 6. Your ideas are neither more important or less important than the ideas of the others.
I 7. The meeting lasted only an hour but still seeming too long.
I 8. The novel was both emotional and description.
I 9. Either the counselor or her secretary can help you with that problem.
I 10.The leaves from the tree fell in the yard, in the pool, the driveway, and on the sidewalk.
TOEFL EXERCISE (SKILLS 14 – 15)
B 1. Ballpoint pens are less versatile but more population than foumtain pens.
A 2. Riddles vary greatly in both grammatical and phonology form.
B 3. Blood preassure is measured by feeling the pulse and apply a force to the arm.
D 4. The moon has no atmosphere, no air, and no watery.
C 5. The firs matches were too hard to ignite, a mess, or too dangerously easy to ignite.
C 6. A 1971 U.S. government policy not only put warnings on cigarette packs but also banning television advertising of cigarettes.
C 7. Demand, beauty, durability, rare, and perfection of cutting determine the value of gemstone.
D 8. The Harvard Yard, which was Harvard’s original campus, is still a major attraction for boyh students and visiting.
D 9. In 1862, the American Confederacy raised the Merrimack, renamed it Virginia, covered it whit iron plates, and an outfit it with ten guns.
D 10. The liquid crystals in a liquid crystal display (LCD) affect the polarized light so that it is either blocked and reflected by the segments of the display.
Toefl Review Exercise (Skills 1 – 15)
1. Most cells in multicelled organisms perform specialization fuctions.
2. The big island of Hawaii, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean, was created by five volcanoes.
3. The sun uses up over four million tons of hydrogen per second but it still has enough hydrogen to last for the next billion years.
4. For Katherine L. Bates, who reached the top of Pikes Peak in 1893. the view provided the inspiration for her hymn “America the Beautiful.”
B 5. Coal, petroleum, and natural gascous are all fossil fuels.
C 6. The mass of neutron stars generally range from one-tenth to twice the mass of the sun.
D 7. Grasses grow in ways that help them to survive being nibbled, chilly, or dried.
B 8. Most of Hemingway’s novels glorifies heroic exploits such as bullfighting or boxing.
D 9. Paleographers study ancient and medieval handwriting in order to establish not only its age and also its background.
C 10.The sounds produced by bullfrogs and toads vary greatly because each species have its own particular call.
EXERCISE 16
I 1. We have already hearing the good news.
C 2. She has ridden her bicycle to school every day.
I 3. I have always believe you.
I 4. He has find the missing car keys.
C 5. They have put their money in a savings account.
C 6. Their parents have allowed them to stay up late.
C 7. She has never ran away from home before.
I 8. Have you ever saw a ghost?
C 9. They have taken three tests already this week.
I 10. He has offer me a high-paying job.
EXERCISE 17
I 1. She was study the textbooks all night long.
C 2. The pie was cut into six equal pieces.
I 3. Today the teacher is allow the students to leave class a few minutes early.
I 4. The class is teach every other semester.
C 5. Tom is bringing some drinks to the party.
C 6. The sick child was taken to see a doctor.
I 7. The children are swim in the backyard pool.
C 8. The diamond jewelry is always keep in a safe place.
C 9. The teacher is preparing a difficult exam for the students.
I 10. Dinner is served from 6:00 to 8:00.
EXERCISE 18
C 1. You should try to respond politely.
I 2. Everyone must leaves the room immediately.
I 3. I could sat on the beach for hours.
I 4. She will asking you many difficult questions.
C 5. You can look at the book, but you cannot borrow it.
C 6. He may lies to you because he is not very truthful.
I 7. He knew that he would forgot the phone number.
C 8. The wetherman said that it might snowing tonight.
I 9. Perhaps we could bought a new car this year.
I 10. This course will satisfy the graduation requirement.
EXERCISE (Skills 16 – 18)
I 1. We have became good friends in the last year.
C 2. Your name will be list in the new directory.
C 3. The new movie is receive good reviews.
C 4. She must have feel sorry about her bad behavior.
I 5. They have always given their family many presents.
C 6. We may be taking a vacation next week.
C 7. We could have taking a vacation last week.
C 8. The package might had been deliver by an express mail service.
I 9. I have not wrote very many letters to my friends.
C 10. The car should not have be drive anymore yesterday.
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skills 16 – 18)
D 1. By the 1920s, many radio transmitters had been build.
C 2. Fish farming has rose in the United States in recent years.
B 3. In areas of volcanic activity, beach sand may contains dark minerals and little quartz.
A 4. Cro-Magnon man was names after the caves in southwest France where the first remains were discovered.
D 5. Lassie, the famous collie who made her first screen appearance in 1943, has always be played by a male dog.
A 6. A blue bigwig lizard stakes out a territory and will defending females within it against courting males.
A 7. President George Washington was inaugurates on the steps of the Federal Building in New York City.
A 8. By 1627, Plymouth had became a viable and growing community of fifty families, twenty-two goats, fifteen cows, and more than fifty pigs.
B 9. Tobacco was the crop on which the eminence of Williamburg and the prosperity of Virginia were base.
A 10.Because there may be scores of genes in each suspect DNA region, scientists must identifying and sequence the actual genes contributing to type I diabetes.
TOEFL REVIEW EXERCISE (Skill 1 – 18)
1. The Pacific Ocean has the deepest valleys and canyons on the Earth.
2. In the United States, the participation of females in the labor force jumped from 37 percent in 1965 to 51 percent in 1980.
3. Some composers, such as Richard Wagner, have felt that interrupt arias the action of the opera too much and have written operas without them.
A 4. Water stored behind a dam can used to drive turbines.
A 5. Our universe may continue to expand as it gets colder,empty, and deader.
A 6. Every form of matter in the world are made up of atoms.
B 7. The lens and cornea are supply with nutrients and oxygen by the aqueous fluid.
A 8. Dodge City, laid out in 1872, owed both its prosperity and its famous to the buffalo in its early years.
A 9. The amount of the two kinds of cholesterol in the blood have been shown to have an effect on the risk of heart attack.
A 10. By the time Noah Webster reached his mid-twenties, he had already publish an elementary speller.

Population and the Environment
We can better understand the population problem by taking a look at the effects that over population is having on our world. Population growth has significant environmental consequences that lead to resource shortages for the world’s population. These include less land for farming and grain production, deforestation and water shortages. In the future, farmers must increase production in order to keep up with the food demands of the growing population. They must, however, attempt this as land availability decreases, creating a demand for chemical agriculture and genetically modified crops. In addition, fresh water supplies are decreasing. The amount of water available per person will drop by 74% between 1950 and 2050. The February 2008 edition of Rick Management Magazine said 1.7 billion people today live in places with periodic water shortages; they estimated that this number will increase to 5 billion by the year 2025. We can already see the effects of water scarcity today in the frequent droughts experienced around the globe. By making the curbing of population growth a priority, we can ensure that we are able to keep up with the world’s food and water demands.
Environmental Threats
The expansion of human activity and associated loss of habitat are the leading causes of the unprecedented extinctions of plant and animal species worldwide. The loss of biological diversity leads to instability of ecological systems, particularly those that are stressed by climate change or by invasion of non-native species. Learn how PMC’s program in Rwanda is helping to preserve the habitat of the endangered mountain gorilla.
Massive rural to urban migration in much of the developing world has overwhelmed water treatment systems, resulting in water pollution that leads to intolerable health conditions for many people.
Despite this migration, rural populations are also growing, leading to overuse of land and resultant erosion of hillsides and silting of rivers, as typified by Madagascar, Rwanda, Nepal and Haiti.
The same pressures are hastening the destruction of vast forest areas and loss of wildlife habitat. The loss of forests also reduces the ability of the ecosystem to combat global warming. Carbon dioxide that would be absorbed by trees instead stays in the atmosphere.
On a global basis, emissions of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, are rising rather than falling, despite the international agreements designed to reduce emissions. Given this trend, many scientists believe that global warming will accelerate during this century, with consequences including rising sea levels, growing weather severity, and disruption of agriculture.
Greenhouse gas emissions are increasing in developing countries where populations are expanding most rapidly. In some of these countries, energy consumption and production of greenhouse gases are rising on a per capita basis as the countries’ economies expand. In most of these countries, there is an understandable desire to increase living standards by increasing production and per capita consumption of energy and resources. Median projections of expanding economic activity in developing countries indicate that the developing world will be producing more greenhouse gases than the developed countries by the year 2020. At the same time, the developed countries are generally failing to make progress on reduction of greenhouse gas emissions, in part because of continuing population increases, especially in the United States.
Given the trends in population, energy and resource consumption, combined with technological innovations, the adverse human impact on the global ecosystem could triple or quadruple by the year 2050. Sign-up to receive PMC’s daily population emails and learn more about how population growth affects the environment.

The target and direction of Industrial and trade development for the last year of the sixth Five year plan Development and for the Seventh Five Year Development are basically still relevant to be implemented. Even though the challenges are different due to the recent position of national economic growth and unpredictable condition.
During the period of the Development Reform Cabinet, considerable targets have been achieved in Industry and Trade sector. In order to increase export, the government has expanded the scope of commodities that are given particular Export companies (PET) facilities.
Policies in foreign trade field is directed to increase export value and foreign exchange receipt diversity types of commodities, strong competitiveness, expand market access, promote non-oil and gas commodities, and settle export problems.
Import policies are directed to control goods imported, for production and consumption needs, state security, and environment. The import policies are among others in forms of import restriction, import trading procedures consisting of permits, import executive appointment, and quota: import duty tariffs, overcoming unfair trade, practices such as violation of anti Dumping and countervailing Duty.
To improve Small and medium-Scale Industries (IKM) a critical period, the government has allocated rolling fund assistance for handicraft industries and agricultural industries, which have exported potential, and their supporting business. In the frame work of facing market globalization and strengthening competitiveness of small industries products, the government will implement ISO-9000 quality management absorption program, including small industry producing export commodities, component making (sub contracting) industry, types of industry that will and have applied SNI national standard, and Industrial companies experienced in applying group Quality Control (GKM).
REGULATIONS
By the legalizing Act Number 5 of 1999 on prohibition of Monopoly Practices and Unfair Competition on 5th March 1998 that will take effect one year after being sanctioned, the industrial competitiveness in the country has become healthy.
The creation of Act on Prohibition of Monopoly Practices and Unfair competition is intended to give contribution to the efforts of improving natural economy efficiency, which in turn will increase social welfare.
The legalization of Act Number 8 of 1999 on consumers Protection by the President of the Republic of Indonesia on 20th April 1999 that will take place in April 2000, in this reform era, is expected to be able to give freedom to consumers in enjoying a product and simultaneously to build business actors in selling their quality product as well as to protect consumers.
Two consumer protection agencies were born from this act, namely the national Consumer Protection Board (BPKN) domiciled in the Capital City and Consumer Dispute Settlement Board (BPSK) in the second-Level District territory. Both agencies members consist of representative of business actors, consumers, academicians and non-government consumer institutes, beside those of the government. The number of companies registered based on the Act on Company Registration Obligation from July is 1,376,426 companies.
The issuance of a series of policies free import trading and distribution of sugar arrangement and farmers obligation to grow sugar cane and sell their harvest to BULOG (National Logistic Agency). Thus Sugar trading is handed over to market mechanism, and General Importers (IUS) can carry out import with 0% import duty. To assist farmers in overcoming loss due to decrease in sugar prices in domestic markets, the government has decided that farmers sugar should be brought by Sugar Factories and the Sugar Factories have to buy farmers Sugar in 90% cash and the balance should be paid form of kind.
Import trading arrangement of automotive Industries which was formerly arranged IU,TT/AT and subject to a very high percentage of import duty, has been reviewed and is planned to be altered to automotive import simplification by eliminating tariff barrier.
Data of Indonesia's Trade First Quarter 2001
Total Export: US$ 14.8 Billion
Oil and gas: US$ 3.7 Billion
Non-Oil and gas US$ 11.1 Billion
Total Import: US$ 9 billion
Oil and Gas US$ 0,8 billion
Non-Oil and Gas US$ 8,1 billion
AUTOMOBILE INDUSTRY
The Indonesian automobile sector is bracing for a Chinese invasion. In only two years, Chinese-made motorcycles have captured 25 percent of the Indonesian market at the expense of the long dominant, domestically-manufactured Japanese brands. With recent GOI approval, 700 Chinese-made Chang'an and Wuling cars will soon hit Indonesian roads. With supplemental shipments, the industry predicts that the Chinese automobiles could capture 12 percent of the yearly 315,000 unit market by the end of 2001. The Rp 43 million to Rp 45 million (USD 3,945 to USD 4,130) price per car is a fraction of the price of comparable Japanese and European imports and less than half the retail price of Korean imports, which have captured the bulk of the market for imported vehicles. The Chinese cars are subject to an additional 75 percent luxury tax and 40 to 75 percent import tariff (depending on engine size). (Kia and other domestically assembled foreign cars are exempt from the import tariff.)
The Chinese cars, nevertheless, are entering the market at a time when sales are lagging. Based on first quarter returns, the Association of Indonesian Automotive Industries (GAKINDO) announced that car sales are likely to drop 15 percent in 2001 due to higher prices as a result of the slumping rupiah and lower economic growth. Automobile manufacturers also warned of decreased sales due to large hikes in the luxury tax. Minister of Industry and Trade Luhut Pandjaitan said that the GOI is aiming for Rp 330 billion (USD 28.9 million) in additional tax revenue from the auto industry.
CHANGING EXPORT FORECAST
Several key Indonesian sectors have adjusted their 2001 end-of-year predictions in light of first quarter returns, rising fuel prices, weakening rupiah exchange rate, and uncertainties in the international market. Traditionally strong sectors such as plywood, textiles, and footwear are predicting disappointing 2001 returns. More interestingly, emerging industries like auto parts and electronics have augmented their forecasts to reflect increasing global competitiveness and a strengthening consumer market in Indonesia. Sector organizations predicting 2001 returns include:
1.the National Textile Business Forum announced that textile exports are expected to fall 20 percent;
2.the Association of Indonesian Plywood Producers predicted a 12 percent decline in plywood exports;
3.the Indonesian Furniture and Handicraft Industries Association announced that the sector might not be able to reach its USD 1.8 billion sales goal.
4.the Ministry of Industry and Trade issued a statement retracting the previously predicted 10 percent increase for wood product exports;
5.the Association of Indonesian Footwear Producers predicted a 10 percent decline in shoe exports;
6.Electronic Marketer Sales Club reported a 60 percent increase in sales of electronic products during the first quarter of 2001. This included a 78 percent increase in television sales, 37 percent rise in refrigerator sales, 79 percent climb in air conditioner sales, and 45 percent increase washing machine sales. The growth in sales occurred in spite of a new 10 to 30 percent luxury tax;
7.the Indonesian Automotive Parts and Components Industries Association predicted a 22 percent increase in auto part exports;
The Best and the Worst of the Jakarta Stock Exchange
Jakarta's LQ-45 Index tracks the 45 most-traded stocks by capitalization. The top and bottom of the list for the first quarter 2001 include:
1.Bimantara Citra telecommunications + 80.6%
2.Alfa Retailindo cigarettes + 30.8%
3.Bhakti investment + 21.7%
4.Indah Kiat Pulp pulp and paper - 64.8%
5.Pabrik Kertas paper - 63.2%
6.Lippo E-Net internet - 52.6%

Exercise 11
(C) 1. The subject (of the lectures) was quite interesting.
(I) 2. The supplies (for the camping trip) needs to be packed.
(C) 3. The chairs under the table in the dinning room is quite comfortable.
(I) 4. The players on the winning team in the competition put forth a lot of effort.
(C) 5. The food for the guests at the party are on the long tables.
(C) 6. The cost of the clothes was higher than i had expected.
(C) 7. The rugs in the front rooms of the house are going to be washed today.
(C) 8. The waiters and waitresses in this restaurant always serves the food efficiently.
(I) 9. The lights in the corner of the room need to be kept on all night.
(C) 10.The meeting of the members of the council begins at 3:00 in the afternoon.
Exercise 12
(C) 1. Half of the students in the class arrive early.
(I) 2. Some of the fruit are rotten.
(C) 3. All of the next chapter contains very important information.
(C) 4. Most of the people in the room is paying attention.
(C) 5. Part of the soup is left on the stove.
(I) 6. Some of the movie were just too violent for me.
(I) 7. All of the details in the report need to be checked.
(C) 8. Most of the money is needed to pay the bills.
(I) 9. The first half of the class consists of lecture and note-talking.
(I) 10. Some of the questions on the test was impossible to answer.
Exercise 13
(I) 1.Anybody are welcome at the party.
(C) 2.No one here is afraid of skydiving.
(I) 3.Everyone in the world needs love and respect.
(C) 4.Someone have to clean up the house.
(C) 5.Each plant in the garden appear healty and strong.
(I) 6.You should understand that anything is possible.
(C) 7.Everthing in the salad are good for you.
(C) 8.Nobody in the class have completed the assignment on time.
(C) 9.I am sure that every detail have been considered.
(I)10.Everybody know the rules, but somebody is not following them.
Exercise (Sklills 11-13)
(C)1. The receptionist in the entryway to the offices is able to answer your questions.
(C)2. All of the information in the documents are important.
(I)3. Anyone in one of the classes has to take the final exam.
(I)4. The coordinator of community services are arranging the program.
(C)5. Most of the car are covered with mud.
(C)6. Nothing more is going to be completed today.
(C)7. The drinks in the pitchers on the table in the ballroom is for everyone.
(C)8. Everybody were told to be here at 8:00, but somebody is not here.
(C)9. Some of the meetings at the conference are limited to ten participants.
(I)10.The sauce on the vegetables in the yellow bowl taste really delicious.
Toefl Exercise (Skills 11 – 13)
(A) 1. Nobody know when the process of glass-making was invented.
(D) 2. Sugars like glucose is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
(C)3. Part of the electricity used in the United States today come from hydroelectric sources.
(B) 4. The languages of the world presents a vast array of structural similarities and differences.
(D) 5. The rise of multinationals have resulted in a great deal of legal ambiguity because multinationals can operate in so many jurisdictions.
(A) 6. All of the east-west interstate highways in the United States has even numbers, while
north-south interstate highways are odd-numbered.
(C) 7. When a massive star in the large Magellanic Cloud expoded in 1987, a wave of neutrinos were detected on Earth.
(C) 8. Some of the agricultural practices used today is responsible for fostering desertification.
(B) 9. Every open space in the targeted area that has grass and a few bushes are occupied by
the white-crowned sparrow.
(B) 10. Krakatoa is remembered as the volcano that put so much ash into the air that sunsets around the world was affected for two years afterward.
Toefl Review Exercise (Skills 1-13)
1.(D) Pictograms constitute the earliest system of writing.
2.At temperatures (B) approaches absolute zero, substances prosses minimal energy.
3.The Earth’s one-year revolution around the Sun changes how falling sunlight on one hemisphere or the other.
4.Though sporadic interest in regional dialects (A) has existed for centuries, the first large-scale systematic studies did not take place until the nineteenth century.
(A)5. The waters of the Chattahoochee River fills Lake Lanier.
(A)6. The first set of false teeth similar to those in use today it was made in France in the 1780s.
(D)7. The term “Yankee” was originally a nickname for people from New England, but now anyone from the United States are referred to as a Yankee.
(A)8. A network of small arteries, mostly sandwiched between the skin and the underlying muscles, supply blood to the face and scalp.
(C)9. Mesquite is a small tree in the Southwest who can withstand the severest drought.
(D)10. At the end of the revolution, most of the army units of the young nation was almost entirely disbanded, leaving a total national military force of eghty men in 1784.
EXERCISE 14
(I) 1. The pastries in that shop are very expensive but quite deliciously.
(C) 2. You can find some change to buy a paper in the drawer, on top of the dresser, or in the jar.
(C) 3. The living room was decorated with expensive painting and elegance lamps.
(C) 4. He knew that the financial problems were serious, that the situation was not going to improve, and that he needed to get a job.
(I) 5. All day long during the trip to the mountains, they were skiing, sledding, or played in the snow.
(C) 6. The car needs new tires but not a new enginee.
(C) 7. He stops working when he gets too tired to continue or when he has finished.
(I) 8. To get to the office, you should go trough this door, turn to the left, and continuation down the hall.
(C) 9. For dessert we could serve lemon pie, fruit tarts, chocolate cake, or butter cookies.
(I) 10. The sick child needs some medicine, some juice, and to rest.
EXERCISE 15
(I) 1. He either lied or telling an unbelievable story.
(C) 2. The music at the concert was neither well played nor well liked.
(I) 3. He regularly studies both in the morning or in the evening.
(C) 4. The play that we saw last night was not only rather delightful but also quite meaningful.
(I) 5. He married her neither for her ability to cook nor her ability to clean house.
(I) 6. The discussion was both exciting and interest.
(C) 7. He withdrew all the money not only from the cheking account but also from the savings account.
(I) 8. Neither the teacher or the students are ready to leave the classroom.
(I) 9. You can meet with me either in the next few minutes or at 4:00.
(I) 10. John is an adventurous person who enjoys not only sky diving but also goes parasailing.

EXERCISE (Skills 14 – 15)
(C) 1. The advertisements appeared in the newspaper and on the radio.
(I) 2. She is trained as both an accountant and in nursing.
(I) 3. We can take either my car or yours to the party.
(C) 4. The coffee is too hot, too bitter, and too strength.
(I) 5. He not only passed the test but also receiving the highest score in the class.
(I) 6. Your ideas are neither more important or less important than the ideas of the others.
(I) 7. The meeting lasted only an hour but still seeming too long.
(I) 8. The novel was both emotional and description.
(I) 9. Either the counselor or her secretary can help you with that problem.
(I) 10.The leaves from the tree fell in the yard, in the pool, the driveway, and on the sidewalk.
TOEFL EXERCISE (SKILLS 14 – 15)
(B) 1. Ballpoint pens are less versatile but more population than foumtain pens.
(A) 2. Riddles vary greatly in both grammatical and phonology form.
(B) 3. Blood preassure is measured by feeling the pulse and apply a force to the arm.
(D) 4. The moon has no atmosphere, no air, and no watery.
(C) 5. The firs matches were too hard to ignite, a mess, or too dangerously easy to ignite.
(C) 6. A 1971 U.S. government policy not only put warnings on cigarette packs but also banning television advertising of cigarettes.
(C) 7. Demand, beauty, durability, rare, and perfection of cutting determine the value of gemstone.
(D) 8. The Harvard Yard, which was Harvard’s original campus, is still a major attraction for boyh students and visiting.
(D) 9. In 1862, the American Confederacy raised the Merrimack, renamed it Virginia, covered it whit iron plates, and an outfit it with ten guns.
(D) 10. The liquid crystals in a liquid crystal display (LCD) affect the polarized light so that it is either blocked and reflected by the segments of the display.
Toefl Review Exercise (Skills 1 – 15)
1. Most cells in multicelled organisms perform (D) specialization fuctions.
2. The big island of Hawaii, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean, (D) was created by five volcanoes.
3. The sun uses up over four million tons of hydrogen per second (C) but it still has enough hydrogen to last for the next billion years.
4. For Katherine L. Bates, who (A) reached the top of Pikes Peak in 1893. the view provided the inspiration for her hymn “America the Beautiful.”
(B) 5. Coal, petroleum, and natural gascous are all fossil fuels.
(C) 6. The mass of neutron stars generally range from one-tenth to twice the mass of the sun.
(D) 7. Grasses grow in ways that help them to survive being nibbled, chilly, or dried.
(B) 8. Most of Hemingway’s novels glorifies heroic exploits such as bullfighting or boxing.
(D) 9. Paleographers study ancient and medieval handwriting in order to establish not only its age and also its background.
(C) 10.The sounds produced by bullfrogs and toads vary greatly because each species have its own particular call.
EXERCISE 16
I 1. We have already hearing the good news.
C 2. She has ridden her bicycle to school every day.
I 3. I have always believe you.
I 4. He has find the missing car keys.
C 5. They have put their money in a savings account.
C 6. Their parents have allowed them to stay up late.
C 7. She has never ran away from home before.
I 8. Have you ever saw a ghost?
C 9. They have taken three tests already this week.
I 10. He has offer me a high-paying job.
EXERCISE 17
I 1. She was study the textbooks all night long.
C 2. The pie was cut into six equal pieces.
I 3. Today the teacher is allow the students to leave class a few minutes early.
I 4. The class is teach every other semester.
C 5. Tom is bringing some drinks to the party.
C 6. The sick child was taken to see a doctor.
I 7. The children are swim in the backyard pool.
C 8. The diamond jewelry is always keep in a safe place.
C 9. The teacher is preparing a difficult exam for the students.
I 10. Dinner is served from 6:00 to 8:00.
EXERCISE 18
C 1. You should try to respond politely.
I 2. Everyone must leaves the room immediately.
I 3. I could sat on the beach for hours.
I 4. She will asking you many difficult questions.
C 5. You can look at the book, but you cannot borrow it.
C 6. He may lies to you because he is not very truthful.
I 7. He knew that he would forgot the phone number.
C 8. The wetherman said that it might snowing tonight.
I 9. Perhaps we could bought a new car this year.
I 10. This course will satisfy the graduation requirement.

EXERCISE (Skills 16 – 18)
I 1. We have became good friends in the last year.
C 2. Your name will be list in the new directory.
C 3. The new movie is receive good reviews.
C 4. She must have feel sorry about her bad behavior.
I 5. They have always given their family many presents.
C 6. We may be taking a vacation next week.
C 7. We could have taking a vacation last week.
C 8. The package might had been deliver by an express mail service.
I 9. I have not wrote very many letters to my friends.
C 10. The car should not have be drive anymore yesterday.
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skills 16 – 18)
(D) 1. By the 1920s, many radio transmitters had been build.
(C) 2. Fish farming has rose in the United States in recent years.
(B) 3. In areas of volcanic activity, beach sand may contains dark minerals and little quartz.
(A) 4. Cro-Magnon man was names after the caves in southwest France where the first remains were discovered.
(D) 5. Lassie, the famous collie who made her first screen appearance in 1943, has always be played by a male dog.
(A) 6. A blue bigwig lizard stakes out a territory and will defending females within it against courting males.
(A) 7. President George Washington was inaugurates on the steps of the Federal Building in New York City.
(A) 8. By 1627, Plymouth had became a viable and growing community of fifty families, twenty-two goats, fifteen cows, and more than fifty pigs.
(B) 9. Tobacco was the crop on which the eminence of Williamburg and the prosperity of Virginia were base.
(A) 10.Because there may be scores of genes in each suspect DNA region, scientists must identifying and sequence the actual genes contributing to type I diabetes.
TOEFL REVIEW EXERCISE (Skill 1 – 18)
(D) 1. The Pacific Ocean has the deepest valleys and canyons on the Earth.
(C) 2. In the United States, the participation of females in the labor force jumped from 37 percent in 1965 to 51 percent in 1980.
(B) 3. Some composers, such as Richard Wagner, have felt that interrupt arias the action of the opera too much and have written operas without them.
(A) 4. Water stored behind a dam can used to drive turbines.
(A) 5. Our universe may continue to expand as it gets colder,empty, and deader.
(A) 6. Every form of matter in the world are made up of atoms.
(B) 7. The lens and cornea are supply with nutrients and oxygen by the aqueous fluid.
(A) 8. Dodge City, laid out in 1872, owed both its prosperity and its famous to the buffalo in its early years.
(A) 9. The amount of the two kinds of cholesterol in the blood have been shown to have an effect on the risk of heart attack.
(A) 10. By the time Noah Webster reached his mid-twenties, he had already publish an elementary speller.

TOEFL

Test of English as a Foreign Language, or TOEFL, evaluates the ability of an individual to use and understand English in an academic setting. It sometimes is an admission requirement for non-native English speakers at many English-speaking colleges and universities. Additionally, institutions such as government agencies, licensing bodies, businesses, or scholarship programs may require this test. A TOEFL score is valid for two years and then will no longer be officially reported since a candidate's language proficiency could have significantly changed since the date of the test. Colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent TOEFL score. The TOEFL test is a registered trademark of Educational Testing Service (ETS) and is administered worldwide. The test was first administered in 1964 and has since been taken by more than 23 million students. The test was originally developed at the Center for Applied Linguistics under the direction of Stanford University applied linguistics professor Dr. Charles A. Ferguson.
Policies governing the TOEFL program are formulated with advice from a 16-member board. Board members are affiliated with undergraduate and graduate schools, 2-year institutions and public or private agencies with an interest in international education. Other members are specialists in the field of English as a foreign or second language. The TOEFL Committee of Examiners is composed of 12 specialists in linguistics, language testing, teaching or research. Its main responsibility is to advise on TOEFL test content. The committee helps ensure the test is a valid measure of English language proficiency reflecting current trends and methodologies.
Since its introduction in late 2005, the Internet-based Test (iBT) has progressively replaced both the computer-based tests (CBT) and paper-based tests (PBT), although paper-based testing is still used in select areas. The iBT has been introduced in phases, with the United States, Canada, France, Germany, and Italy in 2005 and the rest of the world in 2006, with test centers added regularly. The CBT was discontinued in September 2006 and these scores are no longer valid. Although initially, the demand for test seats was higher than availability, and candidates had to wait for months, it is now possible to take the test within one to four weeks in most countries.[3] The four-hour test consists of four sections, each measuring one of the basic language skills (while some tasks require integrating multiple skills) and all tasks focus on language used in an academic, higher-education environment. Note-taking is allowed during the iBT. The test cannot be taken more than once a week.

1.Reading
The Reading section consists of 3–5 passages, each approximately 700 words in length and questions about the passages. The passages are on academic topics; they are the kind of material that might be found in an undergraduate university textbook. Passages require understanding of rhetorical functions such as cause-effect, compare-contrast and argumentation. Students answer questions about main ideas, details, inferences, essential information, sentence insertion, vocabulary, rhetorical purpose and overall ideas. New types of questions in the iBT require filling out tables or completing summaries. Prior knowledge of the subject under discussion is not necessary to come to the correct answer.

2.Listening
The Listening section consists of six passages 3–5 minutes in length and questions about the passages. These passages include two student conversations and four academic lectures or discussions. A conversation involves two speakers, a student and either a professor or a campus service provider. A lecture is a self-contained portion of an academic lecture, which may involve student participation and does not assume specialized background knowledge in the subject area. Each conversation and lecture stimulus is heard only once. Test-takers may take notes while they listen and they may refer to their notes when they answer the questions. Each conversation is associated with five questions and each lecture with six. The questions are meant to measure the ability to understand main ideas, important details, implications, relationships between ideas, organization of information, speaker purpose and speaker attitude.

3.Speaking
The Speaking section consists of six tasks: two independent tasks and four integrated tasks. In the two independent tasks, test-takers answer opinion questions on familiar topics. They are evaluated on their ability to speak spontaneously and convey their ideas clearly and coherently. In two of the integrated tasks, test-takers read a short passage, listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and answer a question by combining appropriate information from the text and the talk. In the two remaining integrated tasks, test-takers listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and then respond to a question about what they heard. In the integrated tasks, test-takers are evaluated on their ability to appropriately synthesize and effectively convey information from the reading and listening material. Test-takers may take notes as they read and listen and may use their notes to help prepare their responses. Test-takers are given a short preparation time before they have to begin speaking.






4.Writing
The Writing section measures a test taker's ability to write in an academic setting and consists of two tasks: one integrated task and one independent task. In the integrated task, test-takers read a passage on an academic topic and then listen to a speaker discuss the same topic. The test-taker will then write a summary about the important points in the listening passage and explain how these relate to the key points of the reading passage. In the independent task, test-takers must write an essay that states, explains, and supports their opinion on an issue, supporting their opinions or choices, rather than simply listing personal preferences or choices.

One of the sections of the test will include extra, uncounted material. Educational Testing Service includes extra material in order to pilot test questions for future test forms. When test-takers are given a longer section, they should give equal effort to all of the questions because they do not know which question will count and which will be considered extra. For example, if there are four reading passages instead of three, then three of those passages will count and one of the passages will not be counted. Any of the four passages could be the uncounted one.
In areas where the internet-based test is not available, a paper-based test (PBT) is given. Test takers must register in advance either online or by using the registration form provided in the Supplemental Paper TOEFL Bulletin. They should register in advance of the given deadlines to ensure a place because the test centers have limited seating and may fill up early. Tests are administered on fixed dates 6 times each year. The test is 3 hours long and all test sections can be taken on the same day. Students can take the test as many times as they wish. However, colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent score.
1.Listening (30 – 40 minutes)
The Listening section consists of 3 parts. The first one contains 30 questions about short conversations. The second part has 8 questions about longer conversations. The last part asks 12 questions about lectures or talks.
2.Structure and Written Expression (25 minutes)
The Structure and Written Expression section has 15 exercises of completing sentences correctly and 25 exercises of identifying errors.
3.Reading Comprehension (55 minutes)
The Reading Comprehension section has 50 questions about reading passages.
4.Writing (30 minutes)
The Writing section is one essay with 250–300 words in average.

Page 157
EXERCISE 1 : Underline the subjects once and the verbs twice in each of the following sentences. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.My best friend always helpful with problems. ( I )
2.The bus schedule has changed since last week. ( C )
3.Accidentally dropped the glass on the floor. ( I )
4.The customer paying the clerk for the clothes. ( I )
5.The professor handed the syllabus to the students. ( I )
6.Each day practiced the piano for hours. ( I )
7.The basketball player tossed the ball into the hoop. ( C )
8.The new student in the class very talkative and friendly. ( I )
9.Walking with the children to school. ( I )
10.The whales headed south for the winter. ( C )

Page 158
EXERCISE 2 : Each of the following sentences contains one or more prepositional phrases. Underline the subjects once and the verbs twice. Circle the prepositional phrases that come before the verb. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The name of the baby in the crib is jack. ( C )
2.By the next meeting of the class need to turn in the papers. ( I )
3.The directions to the exercise on page twenty unclear. ( I )
4.Because of the heavy rain troughout the night, the walkways are muddy.(C)
5.During the week eat lunch in the school cafeteria. ( I )
6.In the morning after the concert was tired. ( I )
7.In the summer the trip to the mountains is our favorite trip. ( C )
8.In a box on the top shelf of the cabinet in the hallway of the house. ( I )
9.With her purse in her hand ran through the door. ( I )
10.At 1:00 in the morning the alarm clock on the table beside the bad rang.(C)
Page 158
EXERCISE (Skill 1-2) : Underline the subjects once and the verbs twice. Circle the prepositional phrases that come before the verb. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).

1.During the meeting in the office discussed the schedule. ( I )
2.The doctor gave the patient a prescription. ( I )
3.The tall evergreen trees along the road. ( I )
4.The watch in the jewelry box needs a new battery. ( C )
5.Pleasantly greets everyone in all the offices every morning. ( I )
6.In the office of the building acrose the street from the park on the corner.(I)
7.The dishes in the sink really need to be washed as soon as possible. ( C )
8.In a moment of worry about the problem with the cash in the account. ( I )
9.The plane from New York circling the airport. ( C )
10.On a regular basis the plants in the boxes under the window in the kitchen are watered and fed. ( C )


Page 159
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skill 1-2) : Choose the letter of the word group of the word that best completes the sentence.
1.Mark Twain (A) Called the years after the Civil War the “Gilded Age”.
2.Early (C) horses had toes instead of hooves on their feet.
3.Tundra Plants grow close to the ground in the short artic summer.
4.In 1867, (C) the United States purchases of Alaska from the Russians for $ 7.2 million.
5.Between 1725 and 1750, New England witnessed an increase in the specialization of (A) occupations
6.The large carotid artery (A) carrying blood to the main parts of the brain.
7.(D) Marconi developed radio as the first practical system of wireless telegraphy.
8.In 1975, the first successiul space probe to (C) Venus was beginning to send information back to Earth.
9.The two biggest resort (A) in Arkansas are hot Springs and Eureka Springs.
10.NASA’s Lyndon B.Johnson Space Center (C) was the control center for the Mercury, Gemini, and Apollo space flight.

page 161
EXERCISE 3 : Each of the following sentences countains one more present participles. Underline the subject once and the verbs twice. Circle the present participles and label them as adjectives or verbs. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The carrying baby needs to be picked up. ( C )
2.The clothes lying on trhe floor should go into the washing machine. ( I )
3.The waitress bringing the streaming soup to the waiting dinner. ( I )
4.Most of stricking workers are walking the picked line. ( C )
5.For her birthday, the child is getting a talking doll. ( C )
6.The setting sun creating a rainbow of colors in the sky. ( I )
7.The ship is sailing to mexico is leaving tonight. ( I )
8.The letters is needing immediate answers are on the desk. ( I )
9.The boring class just ending a few minutes ago. ( I )
10.The fast moving clouds are bringing frezzing rain to the area. ( C )

= adj = verb
= konj = obj




Page 162
EXERCISE 4 : Each of the following sentences countains one more present participles. Underline the subject once and the verbs twice. Circle the present participles and label them as adjectives or verbs. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).

1.The food is served in the restaurant is delicious. ( I )
2.The plane landed on the diserted runway. ( C )
3.The unexpected guests arrived just at dinner time. ( I )
4.The courses are listed in the catalogue are required courses. ( I )
5.The teacher found the lost exam. ( C )
6.The small apartement very crowded and disorganized. ( I )
7.The photograph developed yesterday showed Sam and his friends. ( I )
8.The locked drawer contained the unworn jewels. ( C )
9.The tree was blown over in the storm was cut into logs. ( I )
10.The students registred in this courses are listed on that sheet on paper. (C)


Page 163
EXERCISE (Skills 3-4) : Each of the following sentences countains one more present participles. Underline the subject once and the verbs twice. Circle the present participles and label them as adjectives or verbs. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).

1.Our hosts are serving drink on the tilled patio. ( C )
2.The tired women taking a much needed nap. ( I )
3.The letters were sent on Monday arrived on Wednesday. ( C )
4.The winners deserved the big prize. ( C )
5.The plants are growing in the garden need a lot of water. ( I )
6.The shining stars lit up the darkned sky. ( I )
7.The driver rapidly increased the speed of the racing car. ( I )
8.The excited children trying to build a snowman in the falling snow. ( I )
9.The students are completing the course will graduate in June. ( I )
10.The dissatisfied custumer is returning the burning the broken toaster to the store. ( C )


Page 163
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skill 3-4) : Choose the letter of the word or group of word that best completes the sentence.
1.The first (D) flowering plants appeared during the last period of the dinosaurs’ reign.
2.The earliest medicines (C) were obtained from plants of various sorts.
3.Simple sails were made from canvas (B) stretched over a frame.
4.Pluto’s moon Charon (B) is moving in a slightly elliptical path around the planet.
5.Techniques of breath control form an essential part of any (D) training program to improve the voice.
6.Robert E. Lee (A) surrendered the Confederate Army to General Grant in 1865 at the Appomattox Courthouse.
7.The puituitary gland, (A) found below the brain, releases hormones to control other glands.
8.At around two years of age, many children regularly produce sentences (B) containing three of four words.
9.Multinational companies (B) are finding it increasingly important to employ internationally acceptable brand names.
10.The cornea is located under the conjunctiva, on (C) the exposed part.

Page 164
TOEFL REVIEW EXERCISE (Skill 1-4) : Choose the letter of the word or group of word that best completes the sentence.
1.(B) The Polynesians arrived first settled the Hawaiian Island between A.D. 300 and 750
2.In 1066, a bright comet (A) was appearing in the sky attracted much attention.
3.In some daguerreotype cameras, (A) the object’s view through a hole in the back of the box.
4.In the Stone Age, stone tool (D) were polised with other rock materials.
5.The first steamship to cross the Atlantic (A) was the Savannah, in 1819.
6.The Earth’s plates meet each other at cracks in the Earth (C) called faults.
7.The first plant-like organisms probably (C) lived in the sea, perhaps three billion years ago.
8.In male pattern baldness, (D) heredity has strongly influences the degree of hair loss.
9.In Watch the Skies, Curtis Peebles (A) makes a fascinating attempt to explain America’s belief in flying saucers.
10.The irregular coastline of (B) Massachusett is a succession of bays and inlets, with the hook of the Cape Cod peninsula in the southeast.


Page 166
EXERCISE 5 : Each of the following sentences contains more that one clause. Underline the subject once and the verbs twice. Circle the connector. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The lawn needs water every day, or it will turn brown. ( C )
2.The book was not long, but it difficult to read. ( I )
3.It was raining, so decided not to go camping. ( I )
4.The material has been cut, and the picces have been sewn together. ( C )
5.The patient took all the medicine he did not feel much better. ( I )
6.The bill must be paid immediatcly, or the electricity will turned off. ( C )
7.The furnance broke so the house got quite cold. ( C )
8.The dress did not cost too much, but the quality it seemed excellent. ( C )
9.The leaves kept failing off the trees and the boys kept racking them up, but the yard was still covered. ( C )
10.The postman has already delivered the mail, so the letter is not going to errive today, it probably will arrive tomorrow. ( C )

Page 168
EXERCISE 6 : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.After the plane circled the airport, it landed on the main runway. ( C )
2.The registration process took many hours since the lines so long. ( I )
3.This type of medicine can be helpful, it can also have some bad side effects. ( I )
4.The waves were amazingly high when the storm hit the coastal town. ( C )
5.We need to get a new car whether is on sale or not. ( I )
6.Just as the bread came out of the oven, while a wonderful aroma filled the kitchen. ( C )
7.Everyone has spent time unpacking boxes since the family moved into the newHouse. ( C )
8.Although the area is a desert many plants bloom there in the springtime.(I)
9.The drivers on the freeway drove slowly and carefully while the rain was falling heavily because they did not want to have an accident. ( I )
10.If you plan carefully before you take a trip, will have a much better time because the small details will not cause problems. ( I )


Page 169
EXERCISE (Skills 5-6) : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The lawyer presented a strong case, but the client was still found guilty.
2.After the children read some stories before they went to bed.
3.The report needed to be completed, the workers stayed late every night for a week.
4.If you do not turn on the lights, you will trip in the dark.
5.A thick fog came rolling in, so planes unable to land.
6.All of the shoes are on sale until the current stock is gone.
7.The ship leaving the dock even though some passengers were not on board
8.The outline must be turned in to the teacher a week before the paper is due, and must approve it.
9.Because the food was cold when it was served the dinners sent it back to the kitchen.
10.You should slow down while you are driving, or the police will pull your car over.

Page 169
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skill 5-6) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.A spacecraft is freed from friction D. after it is launched into space.
2.D. Because lobsters blend with their surroundings, or they hide in crevices for protection.
3.B. While the shoulder is a ball and socket joint, the elbow is a simple hinge joint.
4.A car has several sections with moving parts, A. good lubrication of those parts is essential.
5.Bears cannot see well C. because they have small eyes.
6.A. A land bridge existed at the Isthamus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North and South America.
7.B. The Empire State Building is mostly made of granite, it also contains some human-made materials.
8.Pressure differences make the eardrum vibrate D. as sound waves enter the ear.
9.An optical microscope magnifies as much as 2,000 times, but an electron microscope C. can magnify as much as a million times.
10.If scientific estimates are accurate, C. the Canon Diablo meteorite colliding with the Earth about 20,000 years ago.

Page 170
TOEFL REVIEW EXERCISE (Skill 1-6) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.A. The economic activity of the Pueblo Indians centered on intensive agriculture.
2.In popular terminology, any long snowstorm with B. a agree amount of wind is called a blizzard.
3.Nuclear power can be produced by fusion A. it can also be produced by fission.
4.B. If temperature is high, igneous rocks may be changed into gneisses.
5.In 1905, Henry Flagler D. announced his plants to extend his Florida East Coast Railway out across the sea to Key west.
6.The sound A. comes from a vibrating object will be high or low depending on the number of vibrations.
7.During the late 1880s, urban streetcars were electrified throught C. the use of large motors.
8.B. Biscayne National Park en compasses almost 274 square miles, but 96 percent of the park is under water.
9.Legislation B. was passed in 1916 and 1917 gave the Wilson administration authority to intervene in the national economy if it proved necessary.
10.Because a family of birds set up housekeeping in Joel Chandler Harris’s mailbox when the birds were in need of a place to stay, B. so the home was named the Wren’s nest.

Page 172
EXERCISE 7 : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.It is unfortunate that the meal is not ready yet. ( C )
2.She told me when should pick her up. ( I )
3.The instructor explained where was the computer lab located. ( C )
4.We could not believe what he did to us. ( C )
5.Do you want to know if it going to rain tomorrow? ( I )
6.We never know wheter we will get paid or not. ( C )
7.This evening you can decide what do you want to do. ( I )
8.The manager explained how wanted the work done. ( I )
9.The map showed where the party would be held. ( C )
10.Can you tell me why was the mail not delivered today? ( C )

Page 174
EXERCISE 8 : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The teacher heard who answered the question. ( C )
2.I do not understand what it went wrong. ( I )
3.Of the three movies, I can’t decide which is the best. ( C )
4.She did not remember who in her class. ( I )
5.No one is sure what did it happen in front of the building. ( I )
6.We found out which was her favorite type of candy. ( I )
7.Do you know what caused the plants to die? ( C )
8.I am not sure which it is the most important course in the program. ( I )
9.We thought about who would be the best vice president. ( C )
10.She saw what in the box in the closet. ( I )

Page 174
EXERCISE (Skill 7-8) : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.It doubtful whether he will pass the test or not. ( I )
2.The group discussed who he should receive the prize. ( C )
3.It is not certain why the class was canceled. ( C )
4.I will do what does it need to be done. ( I )
5.We forgot when did the movies start. ( I )
6.I would like to ask if you could come over for dinner this weekend. ( C )
7.The children knew which the best game to play. ( C )
8.The advison informed her that needed to add another class. ( C )
9.He saw who took the money. ( C )
10.It is unclear how the window got broken. ( C )









Page 175
TOEFL EXERCISE (Skill 7-8) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.Today the true story of C. what happened at Little Bignorn remains a money.
2.For more than a decade, C. bird-watchers have warned that certain species are becoming scarce.
3.Early in the eighteen century, Halley accurately predicted when A. the comet of 1682 would return.
4.No single factor explaints why C. aging as an effect vary so greatly among individuals.
5.Lack of charity about D. who will lead the party in the coming year will be removed at the party’s convention.
6.We do not C. know whether the bow drill was first developed for woodworking or fire making.
7.Minute Man National Historical Park is a monument to where A. the beginning of the Revolutionary War.
8.Tests on the colors of cars were conducted at the University of California to determine A. which the savest colors for cars.
9.The National Intitute deptal research estimates A. for school children in fluoridated areas have about 25 percent less tooth decay than children elsewhere.
10.The process of photosintesis explain how D. with green plants are able to use the energy in sunlight to manufacture foods from the simple chemicals in air and water.





Page 176
Toefl Review Exercise (Skills 1-8) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.Air near the equator A. to have a faster west to east motion than air farther from the equator.
2.About 4000 B.C., humans discovered that B. the ability of metalic obtained from special rocks called ores.
3.A. In the degradation of DNA quickly after an animal dies.
4.C. Improvement aerodynamic design has contributed a major part in reancing resistance to motion.
5.The southern part of Florida is much warmer in the winter than the northern part, so more B. touring flocks to the south.
6.The moon’s gravity pull water on the near side of the Earth toward the Moon, and this is what C. causing tides to occur.
7.D. As glaciers move, they pick up fragment of rock which become frozen into the base of the ice.
8.The tape measure fisrt evolved from A. the chains measure used by the Egyptians.
9.A typical Atlantic hurricane stars as a low preasure sytem near C. the African coast.
10.It is not clear whether the sub divisions of the neocortex B. are individual units.









page 178
Exercise 9 : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.I did not believe the story that he told me. ( C )
2.Ms. Brown whom did you recommend for the job, will start work tomorrow. ( I )
3.The lecture notes which lent me were not clearly written. ( C )
4.Sally has an appointment with the hairdresser whom your recommended. (C)
5.The phone number that you gave me. ( C )
6.She is able to solve all the problem which did she cause. ( I )
7.The day that she spent on the beach left her sunburned. ( I )
8.Next week I am going to visit my cousin, whom have not seen in several years. ( I )
9.Did you forget the promise whom you made? ( I )
10.The teacher whom the student like the most is their history teacher. ( I )


Page 180
Exercise 10 : Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.The children that were vaccinated did not get sick. ( C )
2.I did not vote for the politician who he just won the election. ( I )
3.The dog that barking belongs to my neighbor. ( C )
4.I took two of the blue pills, which were very effective. ( C )
5.we rented an apartment from the landlord who does he own the building on Mapel Street. ( I )
6.She forgot to attend the meeting which it began at 11:00. ( C )
7.Any student who does not turn in the paper by Friday will fail the class. (C)
8.The people which came in late had to sit at back. ( I )
9.The courses that satisfy the graduation requirements they are difficult. ( I )
10.After dinner she went to visit her parents, who were living down the steet. ( C )

Page 181
Exercise (Skills 9-10): Each of the following sentences contains more than one clause. Underline the subject once and the verb twice. Circle the connectors. Then indicate if the sentences are correct (C) or incorrect (I).
1.My sister prefer to eat food that have cooked themselves. ( C )
2.The boat that hit the underwater rock sank. ( C )
3.The car which he was driving could not possibly be his. ( C )
4.The children built a house in the tree that in the backyard. ( I )
5.The cost of the trip which we wanted to take. ( I )
6.The children are playing with the toys which their mother told them to put away. ( C )
7.The guests who were seated around the dinner table. ( C )
8.The students have to read all the chapter which are on the test. ( C )
9.I really do not like the artist which you like. ( I )
10.The stones that they were set in the ring were quite valuable. ( C )








Page 181
Toefl Exercise (Skills 9-10) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.Modern Humans, who first appeared about 600,00 years ago, B. were called Homo sapiens.
2.The first writing D. that we have evidence of is on Mesopotanian clay tablets.
3.C. they are succulents drought resistant plants which store water in fleshy tissue.
4.Benjamin Kabelsky, whom C. knowing most people as Jack Benny, was a famous comedian in vaudeville and on radio and television.
5.B. Dinosaur are known that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws.
6.The first eyeglases had convex lenses for the aged who A. had become far sighted.
7.Chimney Rock, D. which stands 500 feet above the North Platte River, has croded cconderably in the last two century.
8.C. the hormones change that accompany recurring bouts of severe depression reduce bone dencity.
9.Willa Cather is an author D. whom readers praise for her evocative and memorable vision of frontier prairie life.
10.Mars’s tiny moon Phobos is a small mountain of rock that A. was probably captured from the asteroid belt by mars’s gravitational pull.








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Toefl Review Exercise (Skills 1-10) : Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.
1.D. Because of Annapolis is famous as the home of the United States Naval academy.
2.Some scientists think D. that Pluto might not be a planet but a moon of Neptune.
3.With B. the appearance of sophisticated oil lamps, elaborate tools were made to cut the wicks.
4.Fort Union wqas the sute of what B. being the principalfur trading post on the upper Missouri River,
5.Since B. moving faces commercial risk, it has to appeal to a large audience to justify its cost.
6.A current of water known as the gulf stream comes up from the Gulf of Mexico, and then A. it croses the North atlentic toward Europe.
7.System D. using the two symbols 0 and I are called binary number systems.
8.Genes, D. which are the blue prints for cell constructions, exist in tightly organized packages called chromosomes.
9.The Earth’s atsmosphere consists of gases A. held in place around the Earth by the gravitational pull of the planet.
10.Oscar Harmestein II collaborated with a number of composers including Jerome Kern, whom B. was joined in writing the musical Show Boat.